A 24-year-old female presents with a painful lesion. ​

Radiographic examination: 6.0 cm x 4.0 cm radiolucency of the left posterior mandible.​

History of the lesion: Pain for the past 10 months and intraoral drainage for the last 2  weeks. A mandibular tooth in the area was extracted in Guatemala 5 years ago.

Which of the following should not be included on the differential diagnosis?​

​​Based on the histopathology, which of the following is the correct diagnosis?


What is the most appropriate management?

With what syndrome has the lesion as diagnosed in question #2 been associated?